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Does Psalm 16:8-11 refer to Jesus' resurrection as the book of Acts suggest?

The sections of this article are:

- Does Psalm 16:8-11 refer to Jesus' resurrection as the book of Acts suggest?
- Is the book of Acts really valid?
- Is the book of Psalm really valid?

Let us look at Psalm 16:8-11 in the Bible:

"I have set the LORD always before me. Because he is at my right hand, I will not be shaken.  Therefore my heart is glad and my tongue rejoices; my body also will rest secure, because you will not abandon me to the grave, nor will you let your Holy One see decay.  You have made known to me the path of life; you will fill me with joy in your presence, with eternal pleasures at your right hand.  (From the NIV Bible, Psalm 16:8-11)" 

Now let us look at what Verses in the original Hebrew say:

"I did place Jehovah before me continually, Because -- at my right hand I am not moved.  Therefore hath my heart been glad, And my honour doth rejoice, Also my flesh dwelleth confidently:  For Thou dost not leave my soul to Sheol, Nor givest thy saintly one to see corruption.  Thou causest me to know the path of life; Fulness of joys [is] with Thy presence, Pleasant things by Thy right hand for ever!  (From Young's Literal Translation, Psalm 16:8-11)"  This is verified at this link.

Notice the difference in translations:

1- The NIV Bible says "Because he (GOD) is at my right hand" while the original Hebrew says "Because -- at my right hand I am not moved"  We clearly see here that GOD Almighty is not sitting on his Prophet's right hand.

2- The NIV Bible says "my body also will rest secure, because you will not abandon me to the grave, nor will you let your Holy One see decay." while the original Hebrew says "Also my flesh dwelleth confidently:  For Thou dost not leave my soul to Sheol, Nor givest thy saintly one to see corruption."  Sheol in Hebrew means either "Hell" or "Death" depending on the sentence.  This is verified at this link.   Let us look at few quotes from the link:

1- "The translators of the KJV also assumed the unfaithful suffer in the intermediate state. When the passage talks about nonbelievers going to Sheol, they use the word hell."

2- "'Going to Sheol' simply means to die.

3- "Some conditionalists insist Sheol is the same as the grave. This is not quite correct because Sheol is the same for everyone, while people have different graves. And others do not have any graves because their bodies are never found, or are totally destroyed."

The above points were quotes taken from the web site that explains the meaning of the Hebrew word "Sheol".

Notice that the NIV Bible's translators and many other English-translated Bibles mistakenly used the word "grave" for Sheol instead, which is NOT the correct translation.  We can clearly see from the original Hebrew text's meanings that GOD Almighty will not let the soul of his Prophet (i.e., Jesus) be at unease or go astray, because He, the Almighty, is Guiding it.  Jesus' body will live or abide in peace in Heaven (the word "dwell" or "dwelleth" means live, abide, reside, or stay...this is verified at this link...You can also check the meaning of the word in the Thesaurus of any word processor.) because his soul is guided by GOD Almighty and will never see corruption or evil in Heaven.

This all perfectly agrees with Islam.  Allah Almighty did not let Jesus suffer the pain of crucifixion.  He instead lifted Jesus to Him in Heaven.  Let us look at what the Noble Quran says about Jesus peace be upon him:

"That they rejected Faith; That they uttered against Mary A grave false charge;  That they said (in boast):  'We killed Christ Jesus The son of Mary, The Messenger of Allah.'  But they killed him not, Nor crucified him, but so it was made to appear to them, and those who differ therein are full of doubts, with no (certain) knowledge, but only conjecture to follow, for of a surety they killed him not.  Nay, Allah raised him up Unto Himself; and Allah Is Exalted in Power, Wise.  And there is none of the people of the book (Jews and Christians) But must believe in him  (Jesus) Before his death; And on the Day of Judgment He (Jesus) will be a witness Against them.   (The Noble Quran, 4:156-159)"

"So peace is upon me [Jesus] the day I was born, the day that I die, and the day that I shall be raised up to life.  (The Noble Quran, 19:33)"

To see detailed explanation of these Noble Verses and about Jesus peace be upon him in Islam, please visit the following links:

Did Isaiah 53 really prophesies about the crucifixion of Jesus?

Does the Noble Quran in Verse 19:33 confirm Jesus' crucifixion?

Was Jesus crucified according to Islam?

The Blessed Jesus in Islam.

It is important to know that no where in the Old Testament do we see a DIRECT CLAIM about a Prophet named "Jesus", dying on the cross for our sins and resurrecting on the third day.  The Old Testament talks about crucifixions of people in wars and deaths, but never once, did it talk about someone dying or getting crucified for people's sins and then resurrect on the third day.  Nor did it talk about GOD Almighty Himself getting crucified for our sins and resurrecting on the third day either.

The following links elaborate more on this issue:

The "God" title in Isaiah 9:6 was given to others as well.

Did Isaiah 53 really prophesies about the crucifixion of Jesus?

Does Psalm 2:7 refer to Jesus or to King David?

Is the book of Acts really valid?

The following was taken from the article Just who were the real authors of the Bible? Today's Books and Gospels' authors of the Bible are UNKNOWN.  See the comments from the NIV Bible itself!  Just why in the world should I believe in today's Bible?

The Bibliography of the NIV Bible that I used is listed in the above link.

The Book of Acts:

"Although the author does not name himself, evidence outside the Scriptures and inferences from the book itself lead to the conclusion that the author was Luke.  (From the NIV Bible Commentary, page 1643)"

So based on some conclusion, you're willing to die for defending the idea that the Book of Acts was the True Word of GOD Almighty? If the book was inspired by GOD Almighty, then how come it wasn't mentioned in the book itself to help us filter it out from the many other "Satanic false books"? Are we sure that this book too is not a man-made Satanic book?

After all, its just a conclusion, isn't it?

Beside, what evidence are they talking about?!  The New Testament wasn't even documented on paper until 150-300 years (depending on what Christian you talk to) after Jesus.  So unless the Book/Gospel was signed by its author, there is no way we would know for sure that it was indeed his book from the first place, let alone considering it as the True Living Word of GOD.

Is the book of Psalm really valid?

The following was taken from the article Just who were the real authors of the Bible? Today's Books and Gospels' authors of the Bible are UNKNOWN.  See the comments from the NIV Bible itself!  Just why in the world should I believe in today's Bible?

The Bibliography of the NIV Bible that I used is listed in the above link.

The books of Psalm:

"Regarding authorship, opinions are even more divided.  The notations themselves are ambiguous since the Hebrew phraseology used, meaning in general "belonging to", an also be taken in the sense of "concerning" or "for the use of" or "dedicated to".   The name may refer to the title of a collection of Psalms that had been gathered under a certain name.  (From the NIV Bible Commentary, page 773)"

"The Psalms consist of one hundred fifty poems of Israel written at different times by different authors, though mainly by David, around 1000 B.C.
..........
Because of the vast range of human feelings expressed in the Psalms, this book remains one of the best loved and most used books of the Bible.  (From the King James Version Bible Commentary, page 801)"

As we clearly see above from the NIV and KJV Bibles' commentaries, this book can not be considered as the True Words of GOD Almighty, because it was written by many unknown authors!  There is no proof that these authors were True Messengers of GOD Almighty.  Another corruption and man-made alterations had invaded the Bible and corrupted it.  

This corrupted book claims that the Earth is flat and never moves:

"He set the earth on its foundations; it can never be moved.   (From the NIV Bible, Psalm 104:5)"

Since when the Earth is flat and can never move?!  We all know that the Earth and the other planets rotate and move in space around the Sun.

For those Jews and Christians who would like to see where in the Noble Quran does Allah Almighty say that the planets in space rotate and move, read the following Noble Verse:

"It is He who created the night and the day, and the sun and the moon, all (the celestial bodies) swim along, each in its orbit with its own motion.  (The Noble Quran, 21:33)"

For more information and other Noble Verses, please visit:

Science in the Noble Quran and Islam.

The Earth is round according to Islam.

Also visit The Earth is flat according to the Bible.

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