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"Our ambition...is to be pleasing to Him" (2 Cor. 5:9)
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Office
Hours (MT)
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Dr.
James White, Director
Richard Pierce, President
Sean Hahn, Vice President
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Monday - Friday
10:00AM - 5:00PM
(602) 973-4602
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The Hall of Shame
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by James White
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Below I deal with a few
classic examples of the kind of errors made by McKinsey in
BE over the years. This is by no means anywhere near an
exhaustive list - just a few (to use his own words) imbroglios
he has managed to get himself into in his attack upon God’s
Word.
In the December 1983 issue
of BE McKinsey says on page 5, ‘The word “Sanhedrin”
never appears in the Bible.” The Greek term “sunedrion"
- (translated ‘Sanhedrin”) is found 22 times in the New
Testament (Mt. 5:22, 10:17, 26:59, Mk. 13:9, 14:55,
15:1, Lk. 22:66, Jn. 11:47, Acts 4:15, 5:21, 27, 34, 41, 6:12,
15, 22:30, 23:1, 6, 15, 20, 28, and 24:20). McKinsey’s
studying methods are seen here to be based on an exhaustive
concordance following the KJV, for the term is normally
translated “council” by the King James, hiding its true
significance. (McKinsey did say, in a later issue, that the
term never appears in the King James Version - whether this
was an acknowledgment on his part of the earlier mistake is
unclear).
In the February 1983 issue,
page 3, McKinsey alleges that Jesus did not fulfill the
prophecy of Matthew 12:40 concerning the sign of Jonah. This
he bases on the idea that Jonah was in the whale’s belly for
three days and three nights, but Jesus was not in the tomb
seventy two hours (Friday evening to Sunday morning). He
bluntly says "His prophecy failed." Now, some have taken a
Wednesday crucifixion position to avoid this, but that is not
only unnecessary, but Biblically insupportable. Rather, the
answer lies in the obvious fact that the Jews counted any
portion of a day as a full day. Therefore, Friday was day one,
Saturday day two, Sunday day three. The push for an absurdly
literalistic interpretation of Matthew 12:40 seems just a
little inconsistent for Mr. McKinsey, does it not?
In the next month’s issue
(March 1983) we find the following: According to McKinsey,
Matthew 8:20 (“...the foxes have holes, and the birds of the
air have nests; but the Son of man hath not where to lay his
head.”) is contradicted by Mark 2:15, where McKinsey claims
that the Bible says Jesus owned a house! This one is truly
amazing, as the passage makes it clear that the house was
Matthew’s home, not Jesus’, and this is corroborated by
the parallel passages in Matthew 8:10 and Luke 5:29. So much
for close study!
A classic example of how to
completely ignore context can be found in the August, 1987
issue, page 1 under the title “Paul the Deceptive Disciple.” I
won’t even bother commenting on it, as anyone even somewhat
familiar with the Bible will recognize the vast difference in
the contexts of the two passages, rendering any charge of
“contradiction" or duplicity on Paul’s part absolutely inane.
McKinsey writes: " “For I know that in me (that is in my
flesh) dwelleth no good thing....” (Rom. 7:18) versus
“I am crucified with Christ; nevertheless I live; yet not I,
but Christ liveth in me..." (Gal.
2:20). Paul said no good thing dwells within him yet he has
Christ within.”
Finally (certainly not due
to lack of examples - one could literally find hundreds and
hundreds of examples in BE over the past four years) in
the March 1983 issue, page 3, it is alleged that Deuteronomy
23:3 is a “false prophecy” due to Ruth 1:4, 22, etc.
Deuteronomy 23:3 says that "no Ammonite or Moabite shall enter
into the congregation of the LORD.” Since Ruth was a Moabitess,
McKinsey alleges that this is a false prophecy But is it?
Certainly not! First, Deuteronomy 23 is not a prophecy - it is
a law! Are we to say that every time a law is broken that it
was a false prophecy to have made the law? Ridiculous! One
cannot make a prophecy out of a law. Second, the “assembly of
the LORD” was restricted to men only, therefore Ruth could not
have entered into it anyway. A little more study into the Old
Testament law and Old Testament customs could have saved this
anti-theist another embarrassing error.
The above supposed
"contradiction" (Deuteronomy 23:3/Ruth 1:4) came up on a local
talk program while debating a representative of the Freedom
From Religion Foundation, Mr. Dan Barker. Mr. Barker called my
explanation of the case “weak" (though he did not elaborate on
that). During a break the subject of what might be the most
well-known alleged contradiction came up - that of Acts 9:7
and Acts 22:9. In October of 1986, I received a letter from
Mr. Barker. He sent me a four page document entitled “Did
Paul’s Men Hear A Voice?” In it he gave a great deal of
information on the usage of the genitive and accusative cases
relevant to the word akouo (to hear) and its direct
objects, primarily phone (sound, voice) since these are
the important terms in discussing Acts 9:7/22:9. Though not
dealing with all of the issues involved (in my opinion), Mr.
Barker did a fine job in stating his belief that the two
passages are contradictory. To close our presentation of
"Letters to an Anti-Theist,” we will examine this
“contradiction."
It is quite easy to see the
supposed contradiction at this point. The King James Version
reads:
9:7 - “And the men which
journeyed with him stood speechless, hearing a voice, but
seeing no man.
22:9 - "And they that were with me saw indeed the light, and
were afraid; but they heard not the voice of him that spake
to me."
Clearly the question is -
did the men hear the voice or not? To answer that question, we
must, obviously, deal with the text as written by Luke in its
original languages. This is an excellent example of a
situation where the original words must be allowed to be heard
in the argument, for we could be charging Luke with a simple
mistake that he did not make. Also, we need to notice that
modern versions translate the passage differently. For
example, the New International Version reads as follows:
9:7 - “The men traveling
with Saul stood there speechless; they heard the sound but
did not see anyone.
22:9 - “My companions saw the light, but they did not
understand the voice of him who was speaking to me.”
Note that in the NIV the
contradiction no longer exists; in the first passage the men
hear a sound; in the second they do not understand the voice
of the one speaking to Saul. Mr. Barker and other critics
would assert that the NIV has translated in accordance with
interpretation and convenience rather than according to
language and usage. But is this so? Lets examine these
passages and see.
First, before going into
the text itself, we must address the issue of “what is a
contradiction?” The law of contradiction, stated briefly,
would be that you cannot have A and non-A
simultaneously. You cannot have a chair in a room and outside
the room at the same time. That would be a contradiction. But,
is this what we have in this case in Acts?
The answer can only be no,
we do not have a contradiction here. First, let’s
transliterate the passages so that their differences can be
seen:
9:7 -
akouontes men tes phones
22:9 -
ten de phonen ouk ekousan phones legouses
moi
It would be good to list
the differences between the passages:
1. In 9:7 akouo is
found as a nominative plural participle; in 22:9 it is a
plural aorist verb.
2. In 9:7 phone is
a singular genitive noun; in 22:9 it is a singular
accusative noun.
3. In 9:7 akouo
precedes its object; in 22:9 it follows its object.
4. In 9:7 the phrase is
not modified; in 22:9 it is modified by “of the one speaking
to me.”
5. In 9:7 Luke is
narrating an event in Greek; in 22:9 Paul is speaking to a
crowd in Hebrew (or Aramaic).
Clearly the critic is placed in an impossible
position of forcing the argument here, for the differences
between the two passages are quite significant. Hence, the
argument must proceed on the grounds of contradictory meanings
only, for the grammar of the two passages will not support a
clear “A vs. non-A” proposition.
We then must answer the question, are the
differences between these passages significant enough to
warrant the NIV’s translation? Do we have a solid basis upon
which to assert that what Paul meant was that the men heard a
sound but did not understand what the voice was saving? I
believe we do, and I am not alone on this. Following are some
of the comments made by some eminent Greek scholars about
these passages:
Thus in Acts 9:7, “hearing the voice,” the
noun “voice’ is in the partitive genitive case [i.e.,
hearing (something) of], whereas in 22:9, "they heard not
the voice," the construction is with the accusative. This
removes the idea of any contradiction. The former indicates
a hearing of the sound, the latter indicates the meaning or
message of the voice (this they did not hear). “The former
denotes the sensational perception, the latter (the
accusative case) the thing perceived." (Cremer). In John
5:25, 28, the genitive case is used, indicating a
“sensational perception” that the Lord’s voice is sounding;
in 3:8, of hearing the wind, the accusative is used,
stressing “the thing perceived." (Expository Dictionary
of New Testament Words by W.E. Vine, pages 204-205).
Instead of this being a flat contradiction
of what Luke says in 9:7 it is natural to take it as being
likewise (as with the “light” and “no one’) a distinction
between the “sound’ (original sense of phone as in
John 3:8) and the separate words spoken. It so happens that
akouo is used either with the accusative (extent of
the hearing) or the genitive (the specifying). It is
possible that such a distinction here coincides with the two
senses of phone. They heard the sound (9:7), but did
not understand the words (22:9). However, this distinction
in case with akouo, though possible and even probable
here, is by no means a necessary one for in John 3:8 where
phonen undoubtedly means “sound” the accusative
occurs as Luke uses ekousa phonen about Saul in Acts
9:4. Besides in Acts 22:7 Paul uses ekousa phones
about himself, but ekousa phonen about himself in
26:14, interchangeably. (Word Pictures in the New
Testament by Dr. A.T. Robertson, volume III, pages 117-
118).
The fact that the maintenance of an old and
well-known distinction between the acc. and the gen. with
akouo saves the author of Acts 9:7 and 22:9 from a
patent self-contradiction, should by itself be enough to
make us recognize it for Luke, and for other writers until
it is proved wrong. (A Grammar of New Testament Creek
by James Hope Moulton, vol I., page 66. Robertson
quotes this approvingly in A Grammar of the Greek New
Testament in Light of Historical Research on pages
448-449).
The partitive gen. occurs
in NT with verbs of perception, especially with a personal
object. For akouo, the class(ical) rule is that the
person whose words are heard is in the gen. ...but the thing
(or person) about which one hears is in the accus., and
akouo c. accus. may mean to understand...We have to ask
whether the class, distinction between gen. and accus. has
significance for exegesis in NT. There may be something in
the difference between the gen. in Ac. 9:7 (the men with
Paul heard the sound
) and the
accus. in Ac 22:9 (they did not understand the voice). (A
Grammar of New Testament Greek vol. III by Nigel Turner,
pg. 233).
Basically, these writers are referring to the
possibility that the difference in the case of the term
akouo would in this instance (9:7, 22:9) point to a
difference in meaning. However, as Mr. Barker points
out in his letter to me, and as Dr. A. T. Robertson said above
many years earlier, this distinction cannot be written in
stone. Why then do we feel that we are correct in asserting
this difference as the the "answer” to this supposed
contradiction? Context. Though none of the above
authors went deeply into the subject, an examination of the
context of the passages in question here make it very clear
that Luke meant a difference to be understood in what he was
writing.
The key element in this investigation is
pointed out by R. J. Knowling (Expositor’s Greek Testament
vol. 2 ed. by W. Robertson Nicoll pages 231 -233) and by
John Aberly (New Testament Commentary edited by H. C.
Alleman page 414). In Acts 22:9 Paul is speaking to a crowd in
Jerusalem. According to Acts 21:40 Paul addressed the crowd in
Hebrew (NIV says Aramaic - exactly which dialect it was is not
very relevant). He mentions to his Hebrew listeners that when
Jesus called him, he called him in their own language -
Hebrew. How do we know this? In both Acts 9:4 and in Acts 22:7
Saul is not spelled in its normal form, but is spelled in its
Hebrew (or Aramaic) form Saoul. What does this tell us?
It tells us that the “voice” spoke in Hebrew. Therefore, Acts
22:9 would he referring to the fact that the men who
accompanied Paul did not understand what was said for they
could not understand Hebrew! The text supports this very
strongly, for Paul modifies his saying “they did not hear
(understand) the voice” by adding the vital phrase, “of the
one speaking to me (to lalountos moi).” The emphasis is
on the speaking of the voice, which would indicate
comprehension and understanding. Now, given the above
scholar’s quotations, and the context of the passages, can
anyone seriously deny that there is a perfectly plausible
explanation for this supposed contradiction? I think not.
Finally, it must he stated
that part and parcel of dealing with almost any ancient or
even modern writing is the basic idea that the author gets the
benefit of the doubt. It is highly unlikely that a writer will
contradict himself within short spans of time or space. Luke
was a careful historian, and it is sheer speculation that he
would he so forgetful as to forget what he wrote in Acts 9 by
the time he wrote Acts 22. Some critics of the Bible seem to
forget the old axiom “innocent until proven guilty.” The
person who will not allow for the harmonization of the text
(as we did above) is in effect claiming omniscience of all the
facts surrounding an event that took place nearly two
millennia ago. Most careful scholars do not make such claims.
The above presented explanation is perfectly reasonable, it
coincides with the known facts, and does not engage in
unwarranted “special pleading.” If a person wishes to continue
to claim that Acts 9:7 contradicts Acts 22:9, there is little
I or anyone else can do about that. But let that person
realize that 1) his position cannot be proved; 2) he (or she)
is operating on unproven assumptions (Luke was not intelligent
enough to notice a contradiction in his own writing); and 3)
there is a perfectly logical explanation, based on the
original languages and contexts.
It is my prayer that this
short look at some of the issues raised by anti-theists in
their seemingly never ending quest to discredit the Bible as
God’s Word has been helpful to you, the reader, no matter what
your current position or belief. If you are a Christian, I
hope you have been strengthened in your faith and encouraged
to “be prepared to give an answer to everyone who asks you to
give the reason for the hope that you have” (1 Peter 3:15). If
you are an atheist, or a skeptic, I certainly don’t think that
this short examination of a narrow spectrum of subjects is
sufficient to cause you to change your thinking. Rather, my
hope for you is that you will realize that there are answers
to the questions posed by people such as McKinsey, and that
you will take the time to honestly examine the claims of
Christ and His Word.
James White |
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